I was reading the difference between direct-initialization and copy-initialization (§8.5/12):
T x(a); //direct-initialization
T y = a; //copy-initialization
What I understand from reading about copy-initialization is that it needs accessible & non-explicit copy-constructor, or else the program wouldn't compile. I verified it by writing the following code:
struct A
{
int i;
A(int i) : i(i) { std::cout << " A(int i)" << std::endl; }
private:
A(const A &a) { std::cout << " A(const A &)" << std::endl; }
};
int main() {
A a = 10; //error - copy-ctor is private!
}
GCC gives an error (ideone) saying:
prog.cpp:8: error: ‘A::A(const A&)’ is private
So far everything is fine, reaffirming what Herb Sutter says,
Copy initialization means the object is initialized using the copy constructor, after first calling a user-defined conversion if necessary, and is equivalent to the form "T t = u;":
After that I made the copy-ctor accessible by commenting the private
keyword. Now, naturally I would expect the following to get printed:
A(const A&)
But to my surprise, it prints this instead (ideone):
A(int i)
Why?
Alright, I understand that first a temporary object of type A
is created out of 10
which is int
type, by using A(int i)
, applying the conversion rule as its needed here (§8.5/14), and then it was supposed to call copy-ctor to initialize a
. But it didn't. Why?
If an implementation is permitted to eliminate the need to call copy-constructor (§8.5/14), then why is it not accepting the code when the copy-constructor is declared private
? After all, its not calling it. Its like a spoiled kid who first irritatingly asks for a specific toy, and when you give him one, the specific one, he throws it away, behind your back. :|
Could this behavior be dangerous? I mean, I might do some other useful thing in the copy-ctor, but if it doesn't call it, then does it not alter the behavior of the program?
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